As a native portuguese speaker, you just kind of know the word's gender, either you already heard someone say it, or you can figure out what is the gender without even thinking about it, there are of course rules to determine, but i guess at a certain level you dont even think about it
German is similar, but sometimes there are new words that people define differently, in German Coke is both female and neutral depending on if you are in the north or the south for example
You're mixing up biological gender and grammatical gender, words being masculine and feminine in gendered languages is like electrical circuits being slaves or masters in english, it's an image, an analogy, not the same as the original concept it copies the word from.
You can easily know the gender of a new word when you're a native speaker of a gendered language, because the ending of the word tells you so, it's about phonetics, not finding a bellsack below a table LOL
This system probably derived from the ancestral proto indo european language, where there was an "inanimate" and "animate" gender, it's a fascinating subject.
As I said in the previous message, grammatical gender, it has 0 link with biological gender or societal gender, it is just a caracteristic like plural or singular, proper or common nouns etc ... No need to focus on french in particular, litteraly all europeans languages except english have it
You've never run your fingers over the delicate polished mahogany curves of a table leg before, have you?
In all seriousness you're correct- there are words that are masculine in some languages but feminine in others and that skews the native speakers' perceptions towards one gender or another.
In English, we think of the man in the moon, but Spanish speakers would see things differently.
It's how the words are spelled. Feminine and masculine names have specific spellings for genders and the same applies to nouns. Because every word follows a structure, that's how 'gender' for nouns is determined. It's built into the language. Some countries table is feminine, some masculine, it just depends on the word building rules.
So yes, a table will be inherently masculine or feminine depending on what the word for table is, you don't decide or think about it
Nothing stops you from misgendering a table.(El tabla instead of la tabla) Everyone will know you're talking about the table anyways. It's just an easy way to tell non-native speakers.
Most of the time is with what letter ends (la mesA, el platO) but yeah sometimes you use what you think is best or what have you heard other using (la radio and el radio are both used in different countries, for example)
Yes I mean you only know that because you're taught, not because of the way the object is. The comment I'm responding to is implying there's actually an inherent gender to objects that you'd know without being told.
It doesn't have to do with the object, but the word. The way the word sounds might dictate which gender it would be. It's similar to the [Bouba/kiki effect](https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bouba/kiki_effect) but for words.
Its sort of like adjective order in english in the way that you just know what "feels" natural to say, this is usually due to how a word ends, such as table, in portuguese, translates to mesa, and all nouns that end in "a" are feminine, the thing is i dont even think about that rule, or at least dont mention it directly in my mind, it becomes second nature to the point that you dont even think about it
I understand that but you only know a table is mesa because you were taught that directly. If you encountered some new object for the first time and didn't know its name there's nothing that would tell you it's "gender".
Well, here in sweden there was a test where they took a bunch of made-up words and asked people what gender they were, neutre or utre. I think about 80% answered the same thing. There is some kind of rule, it's just that nobody knows what it is.
your argument has nothing to do with gender. You're saying you dont know a word until someone teaches it to you, and yeah, that is true for every language.
You can learn Table is Mesa without knowing the gender. "q isso?" "mesa", there you go, no gender. It still is something any native Portuguese speaker would just know the gender. It feels natural to us, we dont need anyone to tell us what it is,yet I can't explain how or why it is either.
Ok, so then you agree with my initial comment lol. The guy I was responding to basically said that he knew what gender an object was just by looking at it.
A general rule of thumb that can be applied in most cases as far as Portuguese is concerned is that if the word of an inanimate object ends with an a its probably feminine, using table as an example its "a mesa" or the word for toilet "a sanita".
Yes. I know. That's not what's being discussed. What's being discussed is how that's decided in the first place, not how you know it's gender once you already know its name.
Just like the rules to card games, it was probably just created as it went on. They figured that "ah" sounded more like a sound that a woman would make and "oh" sounded more gruff like the noise a man would make. Pairing La with ah sounds more appealing than La with oh so they determined that was the feminine. Since ah and oh were deemed as feminine and masculine, the endings of words just made sense as to which gender they were. If I say every noun that ends with the letter H equals the color red, you don't have to guess or make it up for every word. The rule automatically dictates it and takes the hard work out of it.
This general principle can probably apply to any gendered language for the most part. Where the exceptions come in - I have no clue how that happens.
Bear in mind I have no evidence to back any of this up. I'm just guessing. That seems like something someone inventing a language would do and ye olde humans still probably thought similar to modern ones so it makes sense to me. Someone with an actual education feel free to prove me wrong.
In Portuguese you can tell the gender of a noun by its last letter. Usually "o" is masculine and "a" is feminine. Using your example, you can tell that "mesa" is feminine because feminine nouns end in "a". So when you learn the word you learn the gender as well.
There are some exceptions, like the word "dia" meaning "day" which is masculine.
It's subtle and the usage can changes from region to region. In specific situation you might use exclusively one of the two like when referring to a dining table with food you would use tavola. When referring to a table as a piece of furniture you would use tavolo. But generally speaking in everyday speech they can be used interchangeably with the same meaning
I'm actually surprised to read that there are "of course" rules to determine what the grammatical gender is. Because I think it's actually arbitrary in most languages like French or German. I don't know if it's different in Portuguese, but otherwise, I wouldn't present it as "of course".
In Portuguese and German there are some rules that will determine the gender. In German, for example, words that end with keit, heit, ung and schaft are 99% feminine.
In Portuguese most words that end with âaâ are feminine. I donât think in Portuguese thereâs a 100% rule to determine the gender, but that are many that helps.
I guess the exceptions with "heit, keit, ung", etc. help, but this still doesn't make sense to somebody who learns the language. Why does "Freundschaft" need to be feminine?
More importantly, why is it "DIE Schnur" but "DER Flur"? Yes, sometimes there are indicators that help you in many languages that have grammatical genders but I think that for the most part you have to have a feeling for the language (which you only do if you speak it fluently). So, coming back to the original point, I don't think that there are "of course" rules to determine the gender.
Or why do knife, fork and spoon all have different gender? Das Messer (objective), die Gabel (feminine), der Löffel (masculine)? A lot of it is just so arbitrary.
I love German but I totally get why it's considered a pain in the ass to learn for non native speakers.
well itâs basically the same rule in le french except 1/5 of the words do not follow the rule or it would be to simple for savages to learn our language
Every language has its own levels of lunacy and stupidity. Like English having like 13000 versions of their. We should just go back to grunting at each other and making vague gestures.
Honestly I don't mind either. They and their are two different words based on the same thing, plural people that aren't us. They're is just "they are". Complaining about it is like complaining about you, your and you're.
On the other hamd the German "the" aren't just simply "the", they inform about plurality and "gender" of the word, sometimes different "the" can mean an entirely other word.
That being said, I am ever so slightly, itsy bitsy, teeny tiny, little bit biased because my native language has gendered words and it seems natural to me.
On a side note,
english dum lmao
The only lunacy of the english language is their propensness to replace letters or sylabes with an apostrophe, it's hability to make up verbs on the go and it's custom to use double letters for no fucking reason. The easiest language there is.
I will gladly accept that I sometimes make gramatical and ortographical mistakes on a language that is not my mother tongue without using auto correct over being a brainlet that uses emojis unironically.
The only reason they shouldn't is that people would have to learn a new language. The cases where additional nuance can be expressed via 'advanced grammar' are extremely rare and probably outweighed by English's larger vocabulary.
âAdvanced grammarâ typically refers to more complex structures and rules within a language that go beyond basic sentence formation. This includes aspects such as subjunctive mood, conditional clauses, perfect tenses, and more intricate uses of conjunctions and prepositions.
The nuances imparted by advanced grammar can significantly enhance communication. They allow for greater precision in expressing ideas, subtle distinctions in meaning, and conveyance of various rhetorical devices such as irony, emphasis, or hypothetical scenarios. For instance, mastering the subjunctive mood in English enables speakers to express desires, wishes, or hypothetical situations with clarity and precision.
Overall, while basic grammar ensures clarity and coherence in communication, advanced grammar enriches language by enabling speakers to express themselves more precisely and eloquently, capturing subtleties and complexities that enhance both written and spoken discourse. Fuck you.
The assertion that âeverything you mentioned can be expressed semantically, with very rudimentary grammarâ overlooks the significant role advanced grammar plays in enhancing communication. While itâs true that basic ideas can be conveyed with simple grammar, the nuances and precision afforded by advanced grammatical structures are indispensable for several reasons.
1. **Precision and Clarity**: Advanced grammar allows for precise and clear expression of ideas. For example, the subjunctive mood in English is crucial for expressing desires, wishes, or hypothetical situations. Without it, sentences can become ambiguous or lose their intended meaning. Consider the difference between âIf I was youâ and âIf I were youââthe latter clearly indicates a hypothetical scenario, whereas the former might be misconstrued as a statement of past reality.
2. **Subtle Distinctions**: Advanced grammar helps in making subtle distinctions that rudimentary grammar cannot. Perfect tenses, for example, indicate not just the occurrence of an action, but its relevance to the present or its completion at a certain time. âI have lived here for five yearsâ versus âI lived here for five yearsâ shows an ongoing situation versus a past, completed one.
3. **Expressing Complex Ideas**: Conditional clauses and advanced conjunctions allow for the expression of complex, layered ideas. âIf it rains, we will cancel the picnicâ (first conditional) versus âIf it had rained, we would have canceled the picnicâ (third conditional) highlight different time frames and hypothetical scenarios that simple grammar cannot adequately cover.
4. **Rhetorical Devices**: Advanced grammar is essential for employing rhetorical devices such as irony, emphasis, and parallelism. These devices enrich both written and spoken discourse, making communication more engaging and effective. For instance, using parallel structure in âI came, I saw, I conqueredâ emphasizes the sequence and impact of actions in a way that rudimentary grammar cannot.
While itâs true that Englishâs larger vocabulary contributes to its expressiveness, vocabulary alone cannot convey the same level of precision and nuance without the support of advanced grammatical structures. Advanced grammar and vocabulary work in tandem to create a rich, expressive language that can capture the subtleties and complexities of human thought and communication.
Advanced grammar is awesome. Fuck you.
All of your examples are in English. You are using examples of supposedly advanced grammar in English in a thread where you criticize English's lack of advanced grammar.
What about the following grammatical features, which English doesn't have: Grammatical gender, declension, conjunction, additional (ablative etc.) cases. Those I would classify as 'advanced grammar'; the examples you used might not be present in every single language, but they are present in English and thus do not qualify or make poor examples at the least.
Subjunctive mood, perfect, and conditional clauses are not advanced grammar. Your last point includes as an example a very obviously "rudimentary" construction ("I came, I saw, I conquered") followed by the claim that rudimentary grammar cannot achieve this effect. This is actually a good example for my point: In Latin, the phrase is "veni, vidi, vici", which includes advanced grammar in the form of conjugated verb endings mostly missing in English, apart from -*s* and -*ed*. In English, the phrase (apart from the fact that "came" and "saw" are irregular forms) is simplified, and "I" is added to denote the first person. The meaning of the phrase is preserved and no nuance is lost.
> While itâs true that Englishâs larger vocabulary contributes to its expressiveness, vocabulary alone cannot convey the same level of precision and nuance without the support of advanced grammatical structures.
Then why don't you provide an example?
By the way, it's pretty obvious that your comment is AI-generated.
Your argument overlooks several key aspects of what constitutes advanced grammar and the role it plays in English and other languages. Let me address your points one by one.
1. **Definition of Advanced Grammar**:
You mention grammatical features like gender, declension, and additional cases as advanced grammar, but these are specific to certain languages and not universally applicable. Advanced grammar refers to complex structures within a language, and what is advanced can vary between languages. The examples I used, such as the subjunctive mood, perfect tenses, and conditional clauses, are advanced within the context of English because they require a deeper understanding of the languageâs rules and nuances.
2. **Subjunctive Mood, Perfect Tenses, and Conditional Clauses**:
These are indeed advanced grammatical concepts in English. The subjunctive mood, for instance, is not always straightforward and is used to express hypothetical situations, wishes, or demands, which adds nuance that basic grammar does not provide. Perfect tenses are crucial for indicating actions that have relevance to the present or are completed at specific times, adding layers of meaning that basic past or present tenses cannot convey.
3. **âI Came, I Saw, I Conqueredâ**:
The Latin phrase âveni, vidi, viciâ indeed uses conjugated verb endings, which are absent in English. However, this does not diminish the point that the English translation retains rhetorical impact through parallel structure, a technique that can be considered advanced because it enhances the effectiveness of the expression. The presence of conjugated verb endings in Latin does not make the English version less effective or advanced; it highlights how different languages use different advanced features to achieve similar expressive outcomes.
4. **Vocabulary and Grammar Working Together**:
You agree that vocabulary alone cannot convey the same level of precision and nuance without advanced grammatical structures. This supports the argument that both elements are crucial for effective communication. Advanced grammar allows for the precise expression of complex ideas, which simple grammar cannot achieve, regardless of the size of the vocabulary.
5. **Examples Beyond English**:
While my examples are in English, they demonstrate how advanced grammar functions within the language. In languages with grammatical gender, declension, or additional cases, those features serve similar purposes of adding precision and nuance. The point remains that advanced grammar, in any language, enhances communication by providing tools to express subtle distinctions and complex ideas.
6. **AI-Generated Comment**:
Nah I didnât use AI I typed it all out with my fungers.
7. **Credentials**:
Where did you learn all these opinions and facts about advanced grammar?
In summary, advanced grammar in Englishâsubjunctive mood, perfect tenses, and conditional clausesâplays a crucial role in adding precision and nuance to communication. Different languages have different advanced features, but the concept of advanced grammar enhancing expressiveness and clarity holds true universally. You are the Soyjak, and I am the Chad.
Do you have a source? English has a lot more words than most European languages; it's not even close.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_dictionaries_by_number_of_words
As said again, 2/3 of those words come from French and Latin. Also The Oxford English Dictionary estimated the words used in English right now (so excluding all those obsolete words) is around 170k, far below most European languages (look it up).
Plus, even just looking at that wikipedia page you provided thereâs languages like Italian that, despite having 500k non obsolete words present in dictionaries, actually have well over 2000k sayable and writable words.
>As said again, 2/3 of those words come from French and Latin.
Yes, this is the exact reason English has the most words of any European language. It has been a ligua franca for a long time, so naturally it borrowed many words over the centuries. I don't see how that disqualifies it.
>Also The Oxford English Dictionary estimated the words used in English right now (so excluding all those obsolete words) is around 170k, far below most European languages (look it up).
They haven't made such estimates for other languages, so this estimate is irrelevant. There many estimates that put the number of English words at 500,000 or even 1,000,000, but I didn't cite those, either. We can only look at words in dictionaries.
>Plus, even just looking at that wikipedia page you provided thereâs languages like Italian that, despite having 500k non obsolete words present in dictionaries, actually have well over 2000k sayable and writable words.
No Italian dictionary actually contains that many words.
It is worth mentioning that the largest printed dictionary on that page (Collins, 14th ed.) is in English.
The vast majority of English words are not in common use by most speakers. Obviously, this is the case in every language (except constructed ones).
The amount of words actually used by most people is impossible to estimate and also irrelevant, because this thread is about the language and not the people who speak it.
I've seen situations in movies/TV shows where someone is like "my friend/cousin/roommate/boss/etc" and it's not clear whether people are talking about a man or a woman, and that creates confusion down the line. That's not something that could happen in Spanish. If it's a friend, it's either "amigo" or "amiga". If it's a cousin, it's "primo" or "prima". If it's a boss, it's "jefe" or "jefa". I mean, if these stories are translated, sometimes they have to go to great lengths to try to translate the situation for it to make sense in a language where it's possible to specify the gender of the person you're talking about.
So yeah, higher potential. Being able to be more specific is good.
You are talking about actual gender rather than grammatical gender (e.g. *actor*/*actress*). Grammatical gender extends to inanimate objects, where it has no practical purpose at all.
In your specific examples, the words "male" and "female" would do the job.
Think on this: If knowing the gender of a person is so important, why isn't knowing the age, occupation, etc.? There are specific words for these in many cases, but there doesn't exist a grammatical way to express someone's age in any language I know.
Most importantly, the gender of the person in question is almost always either unimportant or obvious from context.
I hate french but man, having thousands synonyms for the same shit in English isn't great either. Even if you'd argue there are ~~tiny~~ ~~miniscule~~ ~~minute~~ ~~infintesmal~~ ~~diminutive~~ very small differences, you can probably do with about 80% less of them in your language.
I don't know how you can say this with a straight face when like every Romance language has a lot more in common with each other than they do with English.
If you speak Spanish of course Italian will be easier. Probably French too. Portuguese, and all the regional offshoots of Spanish like Catalan etc as well are obviously easier.
And then on the Germanic side German and Dutch and the other low country languages again have a lot more in common with each other than they do with English.
Likely the reason you're saying this has a lot more to do with the prevalence of high quality English teaching mechanisms and the fact that basically all schools teach it than how difficult it is inherently.
Any non-native speaker Iâve met said they hated learning English and itâs a shit to learn and if it wasnât necessary they wouldnât have done it.
Sounds like the native anglo is coping with the reality that english is a piss easy language lol. No conjugation, no genders, no word endings based on grammatical cases, half of the vocabulary latin the other half germanic. It's literally the easiest language you'll find in europe
You'll find out the difference between everything I listed and languages that actually have them when you try to learn literally any other language lol. No conjugation: all you have to learn is write/wrote/written. For most of speakers in europe conjugation means learning like a 100 verb endings that change by verb groups. Easy to compare which is the easiest. Half of english vocabulary comes from latin either directly or through french. And also just look at an actually complicated germanic language (unlike english) to see what I mean for the grammar cases. You're just a yank
Verbs are conjugated in English all the time to convey different meanings.
For instance, the verb break can be conjugated to form the words break, breaks, broke, broken and breaking.
Learning English is just as hard as any other language (depending on your native language of course), but what English has working for them is 2 things:
1. Everyone young enough in most of the world is taking it in school
2. Internet is forcing to learn English. I met my cousinâs girlfriend who is soo shy to talk English. When I asked how is her English she said âbad.â
>Verbs are conjugated in English all the time to convey different meanings.
>For instance, the verb break can be conjugated to form the words break, breaks, broke, broken and breaking.
Get back to me when english needs basically an entire second dictionary to conjugate verbs. The conjugation in English is incredibly easy and simplified compared to french or spanish
The difficulty of a language Is based on the complexity of Its rules, not how much It Is similar to other languages you know.
It's kind of like saying a car Is a simpler mechanism than a toaster just because some people are mechanics.
English has no gender or Number conjugation, no casus (don't know how you call german of latin casus in english), fewer verbal times and fewer irregular pronunciations.
It's a no brainer if you studied at least One other language, really.
No, really. English is very easy once you learn its wacky writing/pronunciation system. And I'm saying it as someone whose native language isn't even indo-european.
What you're talking about is how easy some languages are *to learn*, depending on your native tongue. For example, Czech isn't easy just because Slovak is closely related. It's easy for a Slovak native, but it doesn't affect Korean or Arabic speakers.
English has no genders, only a few verb tenses, very easy noun cases, simple pluralization, relatively few irregularities, etc.
I'm Italian and I studied ancient Latin to the point of translating almost without using the vocabulary.
French and Spanish are much more difficult to learn than English for me.
I dunno, as Russian English is second easiest language after German. Probably because in soviet union and 90s German language was taught in schools, and now it's English.
Personally I think that English is so easy because of very strict rules for making sentences, low amount of rules in general and it's pretty easy to pronounce. Only thing that I find weird is how words sometimes don't match their pronunciation or sound very similar like bed/bad. Only thing that was hard for me to learn were times. In Russian we have past, present, future. In English you have continuous, perfect and perfect continuous versions of said times.
No... It is not. English is one of the easiest languages. English grammar is like the intro chapter on a book on latin languages grammar. And don't start into Polish with their 8 million declinations. English is simple.
If you were to learn English from scratch and have 0 prior experiance it would probably be one the harder ones,as it has some simple rules(no geneders or cases),but also some stupid rules(inconsistent spelling and too many conjugations with 0 rules)
The main reason is because every "rule" of English has a shitload of exception cases and it can be difficult to learn all of them naturally if you're trying to learn it as a second language as an adult. The basics aren't that bad, but the sheer quantity of exceptions to rules makes it feel like the language is trolling you for trying to learn it.
Language in general is harder to learn the older you are, but English specifically feels like it has a shitload of traps to fuck you up. That's where the reputation comes from.
Using Italian/German/similar as a baseline.
Learning English, French, or Spanish isn't that hard. For "professional purposes" you are looking at around 600 hours of practice.
This basically doubles once you jump to a comparable language that uses its own alphabet. Hebrew, Russian, Lao, whatever.
Then you have the truly hard languages like Arabic, Japanese, and similar. These languages not only have their own alphabet but they have complex language rules which are very context dependent, they often involve different methods of speaking where inflection/tones matter its not just saying the word its saying the word the right way in the right context.
These are generally estimated to take over 2000 hours of practice for "business purposes". We are in a realm of you being an English speaker being able to become "business fluent" in French, Spanish, and Russian in the same time frame it would take you to obtain the same degree of fluency in Arabic or Japanese.
If people want to nitpick about English being harder or easier than Spanish its really not that measurably different so long as you devote yourself to it and practice. Its more so just personal biases from what they are used to that influences it more than the language itself.
english is indeed one of the easiest languages. lack of genders and conjugation make it easier than every other european language.
the most confusing aspect of english is the unpredictable pronunciation, but it is still so muvh easier. than mosy other languages.
And yet people still misspell and mispronounce everything despite having raised in a largely English-speaking environment. Have a gander at any comment section on YouTube or Facebook and wonder.
English has the easiest and most intuitive grammar system of all the europoor languages and it's not even close. Cuz there aren't any pointless conjugations to learn.
But the spelling is pretty regarded.
This is just false... English syntax is wickedly complex.
What tends to make a person's language feel intuitive is the unconscious knowledge that comes with it being your native language; and for any second language it tends to be how it compares to your native language as a reference point.
Source: was a linguistics major.
All languages does not equal just the US and Europe though.
Go check out Korean writing system, it was made 600 years ago, it's one of the newest and was made to be easy to understand/memorize.
Yeah, the writing system is simple, but the grammar is stupid. Also, Korean does not have a phonology as diverse as English, so a bunch of words end up sounding very similar to each other. This combined with the fact that words have very specific definitions makes Korean a needlessly confusing language.
Source: I'm Korean
>be Spanish
>have a conjugation for imperative tense when you're telling someone to do something
>Have a completely different conjugation for imperative tense when you're telling someone *not* to do something
>you still have to say "no" though to make it abundantly clear the order is in the negative
>Be Mr Fishfucker
>wow this rule makes it so much more complex and coherent than English and isn't redundant and completely pointless at all!
You'd think so, but then you'd see that it's harder than you think and if you try to write it right your brain won't comprehend the way that you're not understanding. There are just too many different meanings to words and if they're not familiar with the language it's always easier to speak their language.
> but then you'd see that it's harder than you think and if you try to write it right your brain won't comprehend the way that you're not understanding
I guess I just do magic, then. I mean, seeing as I'm not a native speaker and all that.
Iâm saying you have no benchmark for whatâs hard because Spanish is easy as fuck to speak. English is objectively hard with the myriad of arbitrary rules and exceptions, but you want to act smart because you probably grew up in a multilingual area.
Go learn Mandarin or something you cuck
Why are nouns singular or plural ? why are they Proper or common ? It's just a characteristic among many others, it helps in identifying one noun among many other in a sentence for example, but really just google it, bc if you don't speak a gendered language it's really hard to explain why the sentences flow better and sound better with it.
The counting is just base 20, which has been used historically in America too: âfour score and 7 years agoâ, where scores are 20 years. Now what caused them to use that I donât fuckin know
In đžđź we have 3 genders for words, depending if the word in singular 1st person is pronounced (tista/tisti/tisto) [word]
So you dont need to âjust knowâ all the words genders
I genuinely only know Slovenia exists because a few semi prolific league of legends players popped out if it, and have never seen the country mentioned in any other context.
anon would crumble if he had to learn literally any other language. french is one of the easy ones. go learn spanish's 300 verb conjugations. go learn finnish. stupid idiot
Well to be fair French has more verb times than Spanish. Anon said 10 in the post there but French actually has 21, while Spanish has 16. No argument for Finnish though, that language is jnsane
https://preview.redd.it/8c1cm0ijwgcd1.png?width=2048&format=png&auto=webp&s=37ba8cc446d785a4c693710848e604c60db12ce3
this, but triple (due to -ar, -er, -ir)
Wow, as a french major I'm tempted to answer this properly but I feel like it'd be lost in the wind completely. Yes, there is absolutely a justification for gendered words (ease of phrasing in general) and Conjugation is not 10, but if I recall, 19 versions.
The numbers are absolutely silly but the Belgians solved that with their own french like for 95 :
OG : Four twenty fifteen
Belgian : Ninetite five
Let's have fun : 1997
OG : Thousand nine hundred four twenty ten seven...
pretty sure spanish has at least 7 verb tenses / conjugations as well. I know nothing about french, but I would imagine that you have to pay a lot more attention to grammatical rules when you learn a new language so anon takes for granted how many different conjugations exist in english that he perfectly understands subconsciously. Also conjugations seem pretty universal, like it would be odder if a language didn't have a way of distinguishing between past perfect and imperfect tense for example.
The French are still mad that the only people in the New World that speak their language are black people, so they created a fossilized language that's only used in academia or upper class social circles, cause they don't want the commoners to speak "real French". French will one day go the way of Latin
I was going to argue the case of the Canadian ones but they never accepted to recognize any of the Canadian/American French dialects as real either so you're totally right
Can't believe English speakers would complain about French phonetics. If you hear a word for the first time in English or French, you don't immediately know how to write it (unlike Spanish). However, French is phonetically consistent and doesn't have stress, so you can always know a word's pronunciation if you read it for the first time. The rule for that pronunciation may seem odd to an English speaker (it is another language after all), but that is impossible to do in English, where pronunciation is arbitrary and sometimes has to be deduced from context: read/read, lead/lead, record/record of the top of my head, as well as the classic annoying variations: though/trough/through/throughout/thought/tough/thorough...
You nailed the number one complaint I have with English as a native speaker. The lead/lead and others is so frustrating that unless you're given context around the word, it is impossible to tell which one it is. Every word should have unique spelling so it can stand in its own.
I absolutely loathe how the past tense of read is read. Meanwhile lead becomes led. The inconsistency of this is nutty beyond belief, and only the latter makes sense in regards to phonetical pronunciation.
I also have grown to hate our lack of a plural you. In Swedish, for example, they say âniâ for a plural you, whereas weâre saddled with saying âyou guysâ or âyou allâ or whatever else.
Oh my God yes, the lack of a second person plural drove me nuts. Once I moved to the southern United States, I adopted "y'all" instantly. Even though it's just a contraction and not a word, it basically solves the problem. I hate how you can't use y'all in the north without being looked at strangely like you're some dumb southern hick. I'm keeping y'all and I'm not giving it back
erm ackshually! lead is the present tense form of the verb "to lead," but the simple past and the past participle forms are spelled like "led," not "lead."
Basically "lead" is only ever pronounced one way afaik.
I'm not saying English is any better, but with how many silent letters are in French as well I'd hardly call it phonetically consistant and stress free. Just try watching english speakers or Germanic language speakers in general try to pronounce french wine names they've never heard of lol.
Stress doesn't have to do with silent letters but "tonic" syllables. French does not have stress, whereas languages such as English, Spanish, Catalan and many others do. It can change the meaning of a word ("hablo", I speak vs. "hablĂł", he spoke); this does not exist in French.
100% agree, once you learn the (admittedly confusing for an English speaker) pronunciation rules, you can pronounce any French word that you read, because the pronunciation is consistent
My mother tongue is not English, and I agree with many of the comments here that make fair points and disagree with what the OOP has said.
However, no matter how I try to approach to it, I simply cannot make any sense of gendered nouns in any language at all.
ELI5, what is the purpose?
Not really, language rules are created by social convention, every single person is involved and it takes generations. They were created both by people way smarter and way dumber than anon, and they took a very long time. Languages are always incomprehensibly complicated until you look at their evolutions, go back through middle and old french, then vulgar latin and latin, and youll see how each level change is really pretty minor. For the most part, each change simplified the system and makes it easier.
Ex. Conjugations used to be way harder in latin, and the counting system, which seems stupid at first is really the same way we count in a different font so to speak. When we say 95, you are saying 9 groups of 10, plus 5. When they say 95, they count it as 4 groups of 20, plus 15, because theyre using a base 20 system rather than a base 10 one. Which English also used to do! â4 score and 7 years agoâ score = 20.
Sorry for the rambling i study this shit
Nah, people speaking the langage make the langage change. The academy isnt supposed to tell you how to speak, but to report the way people speak, how the langage change and analyse it.
Nobody ever made an entire population forget a word or a way of speaking. This is social convention
> [...] and the counting system, which seems stupid at first is really the same way we count in a different font so to speak. When we say 95, you are saying 9 groups of 10, plus 5. When they say 95, they count it as 4 groups of 20, plus 15, because they're using a base 20 system rather than a base 10 one.
But then I remember that we have 10 fingers and using a base 20 system seems stupid again.
Thereâs other ways to count than just 10 fingers! The ancient babylonians counted each knuckle (no thumb bc they used the thumb to count) to get a base 12 system on one hand alone. Which is why we have 60 sec in a min, and 60 min in an hour, 24 hours in a day, and 12 months in the year, all based off the Babylonian base 12 system. No system is inherently better than the other, they all express the same ideas in different ways. Arabic numerals are way better than most other historical numeral systems though thatâs for sure
Base 12 is inherently better because it can be split into halves, thirds, and quarters, and sixths as whole numbers. There is no real argument you can make for base 20 being better than base 10 except for the fact quarters are whole numbers. But being able to easily count using fingers is a way better trade off in my opinion.
Not necessarily, while a small brain may cause someone someone to not understand the reason, the could be additional causes. You are affirming the consequent. (If A causes B, then B must always be caused by A)
Also, you're*
Sure is! I'm learning French and saying numbers between seventy and one hundred is a struggle
70 = soixante-dix = sixty-ten
80 = quatre vingt = four twenty
90 = quatre vingt dix = four twenty ten
Only for 70, 80 and 90 numbers family. An alternative exists (that just follows the "normal" logic for these families) but it's only used in Belgium, maybe Switzerland.
With this alternative way, "95" would be "nonante cinq" which is like "ninety five".
the grammar errors that English speakers (especially native English speakers) tend to make are so infuriating.
"me and John go to work"
"he spoke to you and I"
"the best thing about cheese, is it's flavor"
"I want, to go to, Starbucks for, breakfast."
"were going to steal they're money"
"I have 20 dollar's"
and so much more... UGGHHH it's so annoying
French really does suck ass for the reason in bullet twoâ they hardly ever pronounce half of the word. About a dozen words can sound exactly the same.
This can work out well for non-natives though. Often when I speak French I use the wrong word, but, because many words are pronounced the same way, it sounds correct.
france is another language that needs language reform. those letters were all pronounced in the 15th century when the words were first laid down in print. 6 centuries later they are still written (almost) the exact same way even though pronunciation has changed drastically. It's the same with English. When's the last time you pronounced the h in "When" or the k in "knight"? or the gh in "knight"?
No co ty byczku. Jedyne z czym moĆŒna mieÄ problem w naszym jÄzyku, to moim zdaniem zastosowanie wĆaĆciwego: âhâ i âchâ, ârzâ i âĆŒâ, oraz âuâ i âĂłâ.
Wrong, it's not Twenty Four Fifteen (Vingt Quatre Quinze) but Four Twenty Fifteen (Quatre-Vingt Quinze) so Four-Twenty (đ€Ș) Fifteen actually đ€âïž
that last point is getting times'd to a high degree when you enter slavic territory (i'm learning polish and i stg every noun being like "no no no it's supposed to change from âgĆorinaâ to âgĆoniszkĂłwkaâ due to this verb being this way" fucking hurts lowkey)
It blows my mind the French came up with the metric system to have units in base 10, really simple and easy to use unit scaling.
But their own language is in base 20. Imbeciles.
I really like the French language, there's a lot of subtle things about it and it has also heavily influenced a ton of culture and languages (some maybe through less than ideals situations I'm aware of it). But I'm so glad I'm a native french speaker because I don't think I could learn to speak it fluently. It is hard
I'm not sure how to answer your question tbh, i can just say it feels clunky and weird to use the wrong grammatical gender, the phonetics just don't work. You'd be better off asking in r/french than here
In German there are strong or weak nouns. Some nouns tend to shift from strong to weak. Therefore their gender changes from male to female. For example you have the weak nouns "Der Löwe" (Lion. Singular, Maskulinum) and in plural "Die LöweN". The N marks the plural and their gender shifts to female. The counterpart would be "Der Schneck" (Snail, singular, male). This strong noun changes to weak therefore it's "die Schnecke"). It's an process of language evolution and use of the language. English never made this step to gender objects because it early differentiated from Germanic (like 500-700 C.E.).
At least in french you can tell how a word is written by hearing it (mostly), unlike english that you have to memorize it. Ever thought about why spelling bees are only a thing in english?
French rules of phonetics are so good that the spelling almost always uniquely identifies the pronunciation. Compare that with English where you have words like {though, tough, through, ought, bough} where you have no way of knowing other than experience and practice.
In the language anon is talking about there are plenty of exceptions and in other languages with gendered words there isnât always a sound at the end that signifies what gender (Swedish is a great example with our âden/detâ and âen/ettâ, with nothing in the word that comes after giving a clue)
I'm talking about French, there are a few exceptions, doesn't remove the fact you can know the gender of a word 99% of the time just by looking at how it ends
You can take a guess but usually for nouns it's not particularly obvious
Une table / un cartable
Un ĂȘtre / une fenĂȘtre
La mort / le port
Most nouns that don't really have a feminine or masculine suffix can't be guessed easily by non native.
You can even have some words that have different meanings as feminine or masculine (son boule / sa boule, although you can argue son boule is slang, but I'm sure you can find other examples), and some both feminine and masculine are accepted (un/une aprĂšs midi)
I only know Spanish(of the Romance languages). and even though you can follow the rule 98% of the time, that 2% occurs quite a lot in daily usage. Enough for it to be a fault within the language and enough for anon to have a damn good point. There are also plenty of words where the ending is the opposite to its gender to make it even more confusing
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